Obstetrics and Gynecology Quiz – High-Risk Pregnancy

Obstetrics and Gynecology Quiz – High-Risk Pregnancy

Quiz

Question 598: If the mother’s weight > 85 kg before pregnancy, what disease should be screened for?

A. Down syndrome.

B. Diabetes.

C. Anemia.

D. Nephritis.

Answer: B

Explanation: Obese women before pregnancy have a higher risk of developing gestational diabetes.

Question 599: In women who have given birth multiple times (> 4 times), the leading concern is:

A. Postpartum hemorrhage.

B. Abnormal fetal presentation.

C. Preeclampsia.

D. Prolonged labor.

Answer: A

Explanation: Multiple pregnancies can cause uterine dilation, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

Question 600: The following factors increase the risk of perinatal morbidity, EXCEPT:

A. Young maternal age (under 20 years old).

B. Heavy smoking.

C. Alcohol addiction.

D. Exercise.

Answer: D

Explanation: Regular exercise during pregnancy helps mothers stay healthy and reduces the risk of perinatal morbidity.

Question 601: Which test should be done regularly during pregnancy?

A. Urinalysis.

B. Coagulation factors.

C. Liver and kidney function.

D. Vaginal wet mount.

Answer: A

Explanation: Urinalysis helps monitor the mother’s health and detect diseases related to the kidneys and urinary tract.

Question 602: Which age below is a risk factor during pregnancy?

A. Under 18 years old

B. 25 years old

C. 30 years old

D. 34 years old

Answer: A

Explanation: Pregnancy at adolescence (under 18 years old) increases the risk of complications for both mother and child.

Question 603: Pregnancy is considered anemic when:

A. Hb <7gr

B. Hb < 8 gr

C. Hb < 10gr

D. Hb <11gr.

Answer: D

Explanation: Hemoglobin levels below 11gr/dl are considered anemic during pregnancy.

Question 604: Find the incorrect answer: Maternal cardiovascular disease during pregnancy can result in:

A. Fetal growth restriction.

B. Risk of preterm delivery, miscarriage

C. Placenta previa

D. Maternal heart failure, acute pulmonary edema, increased maternal mortality.

Answer: C

Explanation: Placenta previa is not a direct consequence of maternal cardiovascular disease during pregnancy.

Question 605: Find the correct answer: Placental abruption:

A. Threatens the lives of both the fetus and the mother.

B. Usually occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy.

C. Usually causes fetal malformations.

D. The mother is prone to acute pulmonary edema (OAP).

Answer: A

Explanation: Placental abruption is a dangerous complication during pregnancy, which can be fatal for both mother and child.

Question 606: Among the following causes of stillbirth, which one is NOT a maternal cause:

A. History of severe obstetrical complications

B. Systemic medical conditions affecting the mother

C. Maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility

D. Cancer

Answer: C

Explanation: Maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility is a fetal cause, not a maternal cause.

Question 607: Choose the most accurate statement about the causes of stillbirth related to the placenta:

A. Cases of abnormal placental implantation

B. Cases of abnormal placental abruption

C. Cases of cord around the neck.

D. Cases of umbilical cord prolapse

Answer: D

Explanation: Umbilical cord prolapse is a placental complication that can lead to stillbirth.

Question 608: In taking a history of obstetric events to detect stillbirth, which factor is not essential in your opinion:

A. Number of pregnancies and any events that have occurred.

B. Number of births and related interventions.

C. Number of boys or girls already had and birth spacing

D. Number of living children and their health status.

Answer: C

Explanation: The number of boys or girls already had and birth spacing are not directly related to the risk of stillbirth.

Question 609: In clinical examination to detect stillbirth, which examination below is not necessary to perform for all pregnancy cases:

A. General examination

B. Obstetric examination

C. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination

D. Eye examination and funduscopy

Answer: D

Explanation: Eye examination and funduscopy are not mandatory examinations in all pregnancy cases, they are only performed when necessary.

Question 610: A healthy 28-year-old woman, 144cm tall, at 40 weeks of gestation is being monitored in the delivery room of a specialized obstetric hospital, the labor is in the active phase, cephalic presentation high, average fetal weight, good fetal heart rate, normal amniotic fluid. In your opinion, which of the following treatments is unnecessary for this case:

A. Rest in bed with left lateral position

B. Give the mother oxygen and infuse hypertonic glucose TMC.

C. Monitor fetal heart rate and contractions on the monitoring device.

D. Perform amniotomy as a test of descent.

Answer: B

Explanation: Healthy mother, normal labor, no need for oxygen and hypertonic glucose TMC infusion.

Question 611: In the case of a 28-week pregnancy that has been diagnosed with stillbirth, what is the best appointment schedule in your opinion?

A. Once a week

B. Twice a week

C. Three times a week

D. Once a month.

Answer: B

Explanation: High-risk pregnancies require more frequent prenatal check-ups, about twice a week.

Question 612: Cases of labor that can be monitored for delivery at the primary health care level are:

A. Women over 35 years old.

B. Second-time mother, previous normal delivery

C. Cervical scar from scarring.

D. Mother with 5 deliveries.

Answer: B

Answer: Second-time mother with previous normal delivery is a case that can be monitored for delivery at the primary health care level, other cases need to be monitored at specialized hospitals.

Question 613: The following characteristics of the mother’s genital tract will cause dystocia, EXCEPT:

A. Vaginal septum, vertical or horizontal.

B. Congenital vaginal stenosis.

C. Vaginal scar from plastic surgery.

D. Cervical lesions with cervical erosion

Answer: D

Explanation: Cervical erosion does not cause dystocia.

Question 614: Uterine malformations during pregnancy can cause the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. Abnormal fetal presentation.

B. Fetal malformations.

C. Premature delivery.

D. Placenta previa

Answer: B

Explanation: Uterine malformations do not cause fetal malformations.

Question 615: Maternal medical conditions that pose a risk during pregnancy: Choose the correct answer:

A. Typhoid fever.

B. Gastric ulcer

C. Chronic nephritis

D. Chronic colitis

Answer: C

Explanation: Chronic nephritis is a medical condition that can pose a risk during pregnancy, affecting the health of both mother and child.

Question 616: Absolute indication for cesarean section for which of the following cases:

A. Mother has a scar from an ectopic pregnancy operation in the isthmus.

B. Mother has a scar from a uterine suture repair.

C. History of two cesarean sections.

D. Mother has a scar from ovarian cyst surgery.

Answer: C

Explanation: A history of two cesarean sections is an absolute indication for cesarean section to reduce the risk of uterine rupture.

Question 617: A 16-year-old primiparous woman is pregnant for the first time at 26 weeks. She came to the hospital for abdominal pain. After examination, there are uterine contractions: Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

A. Immediately hospitalize the patient.

B. Prescribe medication and have the patient treated at home.

C. Measure uterine contractions on the Monitoring device

D. Ultrasound the fetus.

Answer: A

Explanation: Pregnant women under 28 weeks of gestation with uterine contractions need to be hospitalized for monitoring and timely treatment.

Question 618: Pregnancy is considered high-risk when the mother’s age is:

A. 22 – 24.

B. 25 – 28.

C. 29 – 30.

D. 35 – 40.

Answer: D

Explanation: Pregnancy between the ages of 35-40 is considered high-risk, increasing the risk of complications for both mother and child.

Question 619: Pregnancy is considered high-risk when the number of deliveries is:

A. 2 times

B. 3 times.

C. 4 times.

D. 1 time

Answer: C

Explanation: Multiple births (> 4 times) is a risk factor, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage and other complications.

Question 620: To detect risk factors, the following actions should be taken, EXCEPT:

A. Establish a widespread healthcare network.

B. Equip with sufficient examination facilities.

C. Good pregnancy management, promptly detect risk factors during each examination.

D. Only need to examine 3 times for one pregnancy

Answer: D

Explanation: To detect risk factors early, prenatal check-ups need to be more frequent, not just 3 times for one pregnancy.

Question 622: Risks that exist before and during pregnancy related to the mother are:

A. Economic and living conditions

B. Age, number of pregnancies, and history.

C. …(Narrow pelvis)

D. …..(Maternal diseases).

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation: These factors are all maternal risks that can affect pregnancy.

Question 623: Common risks in pregnant women under 18 years old, EXCEPT:

A. Post-term pregnancy.

B. Premature delivery.

C. Intrauterine growth restriction.

D. Preeclampsia-eclampsia syndrome.

Answer: A

Explanation: Post-term pregnancy is more common in pregnant women over 40 years old, not in pregnant women under 18 years old.

Question 624: Which risk increases most significantly with maternal age:

A. Hypertension.

B. Abnormal presentation.

C. Down syndrome.

D. Increased risk of cesarean section

Answer: C

Explanation: The risk of a child having Down syndrome increases significantly with maternal age.

Question 625: Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor in pregnancy?

A. History of ectopic pregnancy.

B. Abnormal bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy.

C. Hemoglobin level < 10g/Dl.

D. Multiparous.

Answer: D

Explanation: Multiparity is not a risk factor in pregnancy.

Question 626: When should fetal anomaly screening with ultrasound be performed?

A. 12-14 weeks amenorrhea.

B. 16-18 weeks amenorrhea.

C. 20-22 weeks amenorrhea.

D. 24-26 weeks amenorrhea.

Answer: A

Explanation: Fetal anomaly screening with ultrasound should be performed between 12-14 weeks amenorrhea, when fetal anomalies can be detected by ultrasound.

Question 627: In which of the following situations is it NOT mandatory to check blood sugar during pregnancy:

A. Family history of diabetes.

B. Weight > 85kg.

C. Polyhydramnios.

D. Multiple pregnancies.

Answer: D

Explanation: Multiple pregnancies are not a mandatory indication for checking blood sugar during pregnancy.

Question 628: At a prenatal check-up at 32 weeks of gestation, if the mother reports infrequent fetal movements, the priority should be:

A. Recheck the fundal height.

B. Recheck the pregnant woman’s weight gain.

C. Ultrasound to confirm fetal presentation.

D. Perform NST (non-stress test).

Answer: D

Explanation: Infrequent fetal movements are a sign of suspected fetal distress, requiring NST (non-stress test) to assess the fetal condition.

Question 629: Signs of fetal-placental circulatory insufficiency during labor when monitored on monitoring:

A. DIP I

B. DIP II

C. Variable DIP

D. Fetal heart rate > 160 bpm

Answer: B

Explanation: DIP II is a sign of fetal-placental circulatory insufficiency during labor.

Question 630: Which of the following is NOT a sign of threatened preterm labor:

A. Scanty vaginal bleeding.

B. Amniotic fluid leakage from the vagina.

C. Uterine contractions with cervical changes.

D. Thick white vaginal discharge with itching

Answer: D

Explanation: Thick white vaginal discharge with itching is a sign of vaginitis, not threatened preterm labor.

Question 631: Consequences of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy, choose the incorrect statement:

A. Causes premature delivery

B. Causes fetal growth restriction.

C. Placental abruption

D. Preeclampsia.

Answer: C

Explanation: Placental abruption is not a consequence of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy.

Question 632: Choose the most accurate statement about maternal causes of stillbirth:

A. Women over 35 years old

B. Women over 40 years old

C. Multiple births over 2 times

D. Previous uterine surgery

Answer: D

Explanation: A previous uterine surgery is one of the biggest risks of stillbirth.

Question 633: Of the following tests to detect and evaluate stillbirth, which test is NOT performed to assess the fetal condition:

A. Blood tests including HIV and HBsAg

B. Fetal heart rate monitoring

C. Fetal ultrasound imaging.

D. Prenatal NST.

Answer: A

Explanation: Blood tests including HIV and HBsAg are performed to assess the mother’s health status, not the fetal condition.

Question 634: A healthy pregnant woman at 35 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with breech presentation at a primary health care facility. What is the most appropriate management at the facility?

A. Schedule a follow-up appointment in a week.

B. Advise the pregnant woman to seek higher-level care.

C. Send for an ultrasound.

D. Send for a fetal X-ray

Answer: B

Explanation: Breech presentation is a complication during pregnancy, requiring referral to a higher-level facility for monitoring and timely management.

Question 635: At a specialized hospital, which of the following termination of pregnancy indications is incorrect for stillbirth at 28 weeks of gestation?

A. Maternal heart failure

B. Maternal cancer

C. Fetus diagnosed with malformations

D. Confirmed maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility

Answer: D

Explanation: Maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility is not an indication for termination of pregnancy at 28 weeks.

Question 636: Choose the most appropriate hospitalization schedule for a pregnant woman with a previous uterine scar:

A. 5 weeks before the expected delivery date.

B. 4 weeks before the expected delivery date

C. 3 weeks before the expected delivery date

D. 2 weeks before the expected delivery date.

Answer: D

Explanation: Pregnant women with previous uterine scars need to be hospitalized 2 weeks before the expected delivery date for monitoring and timely management.

Question 637: Cervical edema is caused by the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A. Strong, rapid uterine contractions.

B. Premature rupture of membranes.

C. Early maternal pushing.

D. Multiple vaginal examinations.

Answer: B

Explanation: Premature rupture of membranes does not cause cervical edema.

Question 638: Uterine rupture before labor is most likely to occur in which of the following cases:

A. Lower segment cesarean section.

B. Myomectomy.

C. Vertical uterine incision for cesarean section

D. History of uterine perforation during abortion

Answer: C

Explanation: Uterine rupture is more likely to occur in cases of vertical uterine incision for cesarean section, as the vertical incision in the uterine body is weaker than the horizontal incision.

Question 639: Pregnancy is considered high-risk for dystocia when it has the following characteristics, EXCEPT:

A. Estimated fetal weight of 3600 grams

B. Breech presentation

C. Mother’s height of 140cm

D. Placental attachment to the uterine body.

Answer: D

Explanation: Placental attachment to the uterine body does not cause dystocia.

Question 640: During labor, what sign is most suggestive of a possible cephalopelvic disproportion?

A. Prolonged labor

B. Unengaged fetal presentation

C. Signs of caput succedaneum

D. Strong uterine contractions

Answer: C

Explanation: Caput succedaneum is a sign suggestive of cephalopelvic disproportion, meaning the fetal head has entered the pelvis but not descended into the vagina.

Question 641: For a fetus weighing about 3-3.5 kg and a biparietal diameter of < 9cm. The appropriate management is:

A. Allow natural labor.

B. Perform a test of descent.

C. Cesarean section.

D. Vacuum-assisted delivery

Answer: C

Explanation: Cephalopelvic disproportion is an indication for cesarean section.

Question 642: The most accurate prognosis for post-term pregnancy is:

A. Fetal distress when labor occurs.

B. Normal delivery is possible because the fetus is small.

C. Lower than normal amniotic fluid volume

D. The course of labor is normal.

Answer: A

Explanation: Post-term pregnancy increases the risk of fetal distress, especially during labor.

Question 643: The following medical history is a risk factor for subsequent pregnancies, EXCEPT:

A. Heart disease.

B. Hepatitis.

C. Hyperthyroidism.

D. Hookworm anemia.

Answer: D

Explanation: Hookworm anemia can be cured and is not a risk factor for subsequent pregnancies.

Question 644: Which cause is most common and causes the highest maternal mortality:

A. Pulmonary embolism.

B. Hemorrhage.

C. Infection.

D. Heart failure.

E. Eclampsia

Answer: B

Explanation: Hemorrhage is the most common cause of maternal death after childbirth.

Question 645: The most common cause of stillbirth in the second trimester, EXCEPT:

A. Chromosomal abnormalities.

B. Fetal malformations.

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus.

D. Fetus with Down syndrome

Answer: D

Explanation: A fetus with Down syndrome is not a common cause of stillbirth in the second trimester.

Question 646: During pregnancy, viral hepatitis can cause complications, EXCEPT:

A. Acute liver failure

B. Bleeding

C. Acute kidney failure

D. Acute pulmonary edema

Answer: D

Explanation: Acute pulmonary edema is not a complication of viral hepatitis during pregnancy.

Question 647: Which of the following answers is incorrect about placenta previa:

A. History of threatened miscarriage in the first trimester

B. More common in multiparous women

C. Occurs in women with a history of abortion

D. History of cesarean section

Answer: B

Explanation: Placenta previa is not more common in multiparous women.

Question 648: An 8-month pregnant woman is examined and a pelvic mass is found. The patient has no symptoms. The appropriate management is:

A. Immediate surgical removal of the mass.

B. Induce labor.

C. Immediate cesarean section.

D. Close monitoring until labor.

Answer: D

Explanation: Pelvic masses during pregnancy require close monitoring and should not be surgically removed or induced until the baby is full-term.